Naked News

Is my title question absurd? If so, how it is more than absurd to believe that the literal eating of a certain fruit of a certain tree, albeit by The Lord is forbidden, it can be assumed that evil, Adam and Eve that their opportunity for a lose physical life in paradise should and access to the tree of life? If a child is in our care, our statement for the first time we are going to beat with a heavy penalty on first offense of disobedience to obey? Obviouslynot why the Lord has to punish our original parents so much for eating the wrong kind of "apple"? OK, I know not to say apple, but it could just as well say it is this apparent trivial mistakes and the punishment that follows any sense, or, in other words, the punishment of the crime? Well, if we go a step further and accept the biblical narrative as a symbol for something else, then, yes, it makes sense. In fact, we may assume, without much doubt, that Adamand Eve, the sin was so serious, so abominable that the Lord had no other choice than to banish our original parents from the garden. This then leaves us with the question of what kind of offense (s) or sin (s) it could have been, that would justify such a harsh punishment?

Until recently I was the soul, like so many others that the sin of Adam and Eve just a simple act of disobedience, but discovered writings I have just recently thrown a huge spanner into the works of my originalUnderstanding of original sin. My understanding is not much to contribute by what is written in the King James Bible. However, always remember that as believers, we never heard our understanding is the understanding that we receive and the Lord gives us to understand not all, all at once, or at the beginning of our walk with him. It takes years of study and a long wait on Him. Having that clarified somewhat apart, we write the verses of crucial importance, so that we can see for ourselves what theHoly Scriptures actually say:

Genesis 3:15 And I will put enmity between thee and the woman and between thy seed and her seed, he will crush your head and you will see him in the heel.

This verse is the most important and does not affect the whole of this study suggests two seeds. Well, what are these "seeds" because we, before we have to aware of what can be expressed and move, after a little research, we find it's all very straightforward. Most readers willknow what the word "seed" means in this context, however, to ensure we use an example or two, so there is no ambiguity or confusion:

Genesis 9:8-9 And God said to Noah and his sons with him: 9 And I, behold, I will establish my covenant with you and with your descendants after you.

Gen 15:3 and Abraham said, Behold, thou hast given me no seed, and behold, one born in my house is my heir.

So we can see clearly refers to the word "seed" to the offspring, and if werefer to Strong's numbering for further evidence, we find that the Hebrew word for 'seed in Genesis 3:15, the same as in Genesis 9:9 15.3. Ok, so if we go back to Genesis 3:15, we can see that the Lord will put enmity between these two very different seeds or lines, but who is the Lord to speak? Let's go there now:

Genesis 3:14 And the Lord God said unto the serpent, Because thou hast done this, thou art cursed above all cattle, and above every beast of the field;Upon thy belly shalt thou go and dust shalt thou eat all the days of thy life:

As we speak, and the Lord to the Devil, Satan, the snake and also as an arch-destroyer of the enemy and in this case, the arch-seducer, as known, no doubt, mentioned that one of the two seeds here is his semen. Also note the words "because you've done that." From there one can easily deduce, and know that Satan has really something, and the term "do something" more frequentlythan not, refers to a physical action, not just an "action" inactive tempting at the edge, incite or provoke a rich audience.

What does all this mean for us clearly is a physical seed, which belongs to the devil? In turn, this beggars the question now, how can a spiritual being or a fallen angel have physical sexual relations with a man? Well, the only verse of Scripture we can rely on, or for all documents that theyEvent is once again in Genesis:

Genesis 6:1-2 And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were to them, 2 that the sons born of God saw the daughters of men that they were beautiful, and they took as wives, which they chose.

Who were these "sons of God" that here was the offspring of Adam or daughters of women? Well, they can only be one thing, they were fallen angels or angels who went astray and left their first estate asdescribed in Jude 6

Jude 1:6 And the angels who did not always have their first estate, but left their own habitation, he kept in everlasting chains under darkness, the verdict of the great day.

The most important words of this verse are "not required", "first estate" and "living". The words "not required" mean, do not consider them to watch or not, as a valuable given their spiritual heritage or property, ie keep to any value on their spiritual substance and get the gloryto them as spiritual beings. Instead, it took it upon himself to choose the lower of the physical or the basic level of physical man. That is, they despised their first estate, and placed more value on human carnal desires and do not forget, these daughters were people killed in the state. These angels treat with contempt their obviously higher order, that the Lord had blessed them with their "first estate" - its position. Not only that, they gave their home asgood or superior to their apartment, very reckless and stupid, indeed. So much so, it ultimately cost them their freedom, because the Lord shut them in the darkness, where they are until today and where are they up to the last big day at the end of the millennium or the end of the thousand years the Lord government to stay on this earth as King of Kings.

Now it brings us to the original question that malice was not a one that had happened all before, and it was afterEarlier, the wickedness of their leader, Satan, the devil, otherwise known as Sammael in other writings I have already mentioned. He set the example and the fallen angels follow in his footsteps, and their actions were a repetition of his wickedness. So what was this wickedness? Quite simply, it was the seduction of Eve. We can then add in the cuckolding of Adam, or possibly even the sodomising by Adam - we do not know all the details. What we do know, however, that the devil her divine contaminatedUnion, which had hitherto not been consummated. Adam and Eve discovered the sexual act of perversion, and by nothing but lust and desire. This event was a compounding event, because after the devil had his wicked way with Eva, he then, by Eve Adam encourages them to take after making them the status of a slut sexual object, an adulteress, or possibly even worse, a promiscuous. This in fact was the first pornographic act - the first of three, the use ofthe female body for nothing but selfish sexual gratification. There was no love in this case, and it was the first sexual act on the ground between a man and a woman. Again, this is how they knew that they were naked and covered themselves with leaves and also why she hid from the Lord in the garden. They protected their genitals, they were loaded with shame and guilt - she felt dirty and polluted. In addition, this fact which gives them the knowledge of good and evil, which was not byliteral consumption of an 'apple', is the fruit of pure symbolism. Not only that, if we think the literal consumption of fruit from the wrong tree can make us feel dirty, unclean and shameful, what kind of fruit could be. OK, could and would be pleased to feel guilty for having obeyed God, but not dirty and ashamed. No, it's just an act that could, was that the kind act of the effect on an already innocent people and that promiscuity, lust, have loveless sexual act.

OK, so we now have theEvidence that this bad event has occurred, but where this is to us? Quite simply, again on the two seeds, two seeds, which produce two offspring - Cain and Abel. One child was from seed of the devil and the other was from seed of Adam. How can we know? Not easy, because the King James Bible is not helpful, we must look elsewhere, but where? Well, before I leave that copy of the KJV verse here, first, analyze what it means:

Gen 4:1-2 And Adam knew Eve his wife, and shebecame pregnant and bore Cain, saying, I have gotten a man from the Lord. 2 And she again bare his brother Abel. And Abel was a shepherd, but Cain was a tiller.

Well, with the evidence that I have demonstrated from the Holy Scriptures, Genesis 4:1 seems to like a complete contradiction to the previous verses to read. We know that there are two seeds, but this verse looks as if it is obvious that Adam is the son of Cain and Abel, the son of Adam and not only that, but it was Caina gift from God himself to Eve, no less. Now that the two seeds away, because if Cain and Abel are both sons of Adam then they can only have one seed for both seed Adam, so what's going on in this verse? Now we do not know, we, the true evidence of the story written out by the translators. Now there's a surprise, and why they should do this!? They would do it because it would mean having to admit what I mentioned above that Eve having sex with the devil andproduced by Cain that illegitimate union. The thing is, we have a whole load of material is in Genesis 4:1 was standing, and it requires covering a different item to enable it to stay with people.

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